Proving the given two groups are isomorphic The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are In Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Are $(mathbbR,+)$ and $(mathbbC,+)$ isomorphic as additive groups?How do I show that these two presentations are isomorphic?Determine whether or not the two given groups are isomorphic.Surjective Homomorphisms of Isomorphic Abelian GroupsGroup isomorphism between two groups .How to use the first isomorphism theorem to show that two groups are isomorphic?Showing that these two groups are isomorphic?Showing that $2$ of the following groups are not isomorphicShow that the Two Given Groups are IsomorphicAre given groups isomorphic

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Proving the given two groups are isomorphic



The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are In
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Are $(mathbbR,+)$ and $(mathbbC,+)$ isomorphic as additive groups?How do I show that these two presentations are isomorphic?Determine whether or not the two given groups are isomorphic.Surjective Homomorphisms of Isomorphic Abelian GroupsGroup isomorphism between two groups .How to use the first isomorphism theorem to show that two groups are isomorphic?Showing that these two groups are isomorphic?Showing that $2$ of the following groups are not isomorphicShow that the Two Given Groups are IsomorphicAre given groups isomorphic










1












$begingroup$


So I am given a group $mathbb R^3$ and a group $H$ = y in mathbb R$. I have to prove that that $mathbb R^3/H$ $cong$ $mathbb R^2$. I am not sure how to even begin. My difficulty is coming up with a map between the the two sets. I have already verified that $H unlhd mathbb R^3$. So all I know is $mathbb R^3/H$ is a group. Also, from first isomorphism theorem, I know that the group is isomorphic to the image of the map $f: mathbb R^3 to A$, and I do not know what that $A$ is supposed to be. Today is the first day I learned about isomorphism, and I am very confused what is going on. Can anyone provide some help on this?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$
















    1












    $begingroup$


    So I am given a group $mathbb R^3$ and a group $H$ = y in mathbb R$. I have to prove that that $mathbb R^3/H$ $cong$ $mathbb R^2$. I am not sure how to even begin. My difficulty is coming up with a map between the the two sets. I have already verified that $H unlhd mathbb R^3$. So all I know is $mathbb R^3/H$ is a group. Also, from first isomorphism theorem, I know that the group is isomorphic to the image of the map $f: mathbb R^3 to A$, and I do not know what that $A$ is supposed to be. Today is the first day I learned about isomorphism, and I am very confused what is going on. Can anyone provide some help on this?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$














      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      So I am given a group $mathbb R^3$ and a group $H$ = y in mathbb R$. I have to prove that that $mathbb R^3/H$ $cong$ $mathbb R^2$. I am not sure how to even begin. My difficulty is coming up with a map between the the two sets. I have already verified that $H unlhd mathbb R^3$. So all I know is $mathbb R^3/H$ is a group. Also, from first isomorphism theorem, I know that the group is isomorphic to the image of the map $f: mathbb R^3 to A$, and I do not know what that $A$ is supposed to be. Today is the first day I learned about isomorphism, and I am very confused what is going on. Can anyone provide some help on this?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      So I am given a group $mathbb R^3$ and a group $H$ = y in mathbb R$. I have to prove that that $mathbb R^3/H$ $cong$ $mathbb R^2$. I am not sure how to even begin. My difficulty is coming up with a map between the the two sets. I have already verified that $H unlhd mathbb R^3$. So all I know is $mathbb R^3/H$ is a group. Also, from first isomorphism theorem, I know that the group is isomorphic to the image of the map $f: mathbb R^3 to A$, and I do not know what that $A$ is supposed to be. Today is the first day I learned about isomorphism, and I am very confused what is going on. Can anyone provide some help on this?







      abstract-algebra group-isomorphism






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      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked 1 hour ago









      UfomammutUfomammut

      391314




      391314




















          2 Answers
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          2












          $begingroup$

          The first isomorphism theorem asserts that, if $varphi: Ato B$ is a surjective homomorphism, then $Bcong A/kervarphi$. In your problem, you wish to show $mathbb R^2congmathbb R^3/H $, so a natural guess would be to take $A=mathbb R^3$ and $B=mathbb R^2$. Now it remains to construct the homomorphism so that $kervarphi=H$. I will leave the rest to you.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$




















            2












            $begingroup$

            We can use the first isomorphism theorem for groups here as you indicated. Consider the map $f : mathbbR^3 longrightarrow mathbbR^2$ as follows, $f(x,y,z) = (y,y+z)$. First, we show that this map is a well-defined group homomorphism and next show that $H = (y,0,0) $ is its kernel.
            If $(x_1,y_1,z_1) = (x_2,y_2,z_2)$ then $f(x_1,y_1,z_1) = f(x_2,y_2,z_2)$ hence map is well defined.
            Next we show this map is homomorphism. $f((x_1,y_1,z_1) + (x_2,y_2,z_2)) = f(x_1+x_2,y_1+y_2,z_1+z_2) = (y_1+y_2, (y_1+y_2)+(z_1+z_2)) = (y_1+y_2, (y_1+z_1)+(y_2+z_2) = (y_1,y_1+z_1) + (y_2,y_2+z_2) = f(x_1,y_1,z_1) +f(x_2,y_2,z_2). textMoreover, f(0,0,0) = (0,0)$
            The kernel of this map is seen to be all $(x,y,z) in mathbbR$ such that $y,z$ are $0$ , i.e., $H$.
            Hence first isomorphism theorem applies and $ mathbbR^3/H equiv mathbbR^2.$






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$












            • $begingroup$
              I came up with something similar, but what about the map $f((x,y,z)) = (y,z)$? I think this one should be fine too, right?
              $endgroup$
              – Ufomammut
              21 mins ago











            • $begingroup$
              Yes, that will also work.
              $endgroup$
              – Mayank Mishra
              18 mins ago











            Your Answer








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            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

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            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

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            active

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            active

            oldest

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            2












            $begingroup$

            The first isomorphism theorem asserts that, if $varphi: Ato B$ is a surjective homomorphism, then $Bcong A/kervarphi$. In your problem, you wish to show $mathbb R^2congmathbb R^3/H $, so a natural guess would be to take $A=mathbb R^3$ and $B=mathbb R^2$. Now it remains to construct the homomorphism so that $kervarphi=H$. I will leave the rest to you.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$

















              2












              $begingroup$

              The first isomorphism theorem asserts that, if $varphi: Ato B$ is a surjective homomorphism, then $Bcong A/kervarphi$. In your problem, you wish to show $mathbb R^2congmathbb R^3/H $, so a natural guess would be to take $A=mathbb R^3$ and $B=mathbb R^2$. Now it remains to construct the homomorphism so that $kervarphi=H$. I will leave the rest to you.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$















                2












                2








                2





                $begingroup$

                The first isomorphism theorem asserts that, if $varphi: Ato B$ is a surjective homomorphism, then $Bcong A/kervarphi$. In your problem, you wish to show $mathbb R^2congmathbb R^3/H $, so a natural guess would be to take $A=mathbb R^3$ and $B=mathbb R^2$. Now it remains to construct the homomorphism so that $kervarphi=H$. I will leave the rest to you.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                The first isomorphism theorem asserts that, if $varphi: Ato B$ is a surjective homomorphism, then $Bcong A/kervarphi$. In your problem, you wish to show $mathbb R^2congmathbb R^3/H $, so a natural guess would be to take $A=mathbb R^3$ and $B=mathbb R^2$. Now it remains to construct the homomorphism so that $kervarphi=H$. I will leave the rest to you.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered 29 mins ago









                lEmlEm

                3,4521921




                3,4521921





















                    2












                    $begingroup$

                    We can use the first isomorphism theorem for groups here as you indicated. Consider the map $f : mathbbR^3 longrightarrow mathbbR^2$ as follows, $f(x,y,z) = (y,y+z)$. First, we show that this map is a well-defined group homomorphism and next show that $H = (y,0,0) $ is its kernel.
                    If $(x_1,y_1,z_1) = (x_2,y_2,z_2)$ then $f(x_1,y_1,z_1) = f(x_2,y_2,z_2)$ hence map is well defined.
                    Next we show this map is homomorphism. $f((x_1,y_1,z_1) + (x_2,y_2,z_2)) = f(x_1+x_2,y_1+y_2,z_1+z_2) = (y_1+y_2, (y_1+y_2)+(z_1+z_2)) = (y_1+y_2, (y_1+z_1)+(y_2+z_2) = (y_1,y_1+z_1) + (y_2,y_2+z_2) = f(x_1,y_1,z_1) +f(x_2,y_2,z_2). textMoreover, f(0,0,0) = (0,0)$
                    The kernel of this map is seen to be all $(x,y,z) in mathbbR$ such that $y,z$ are $0$ , i.e., $H$.
                    Hence first isomorphism theorem applies and $ mathbbR^3/H equiv mathbbR^2.$






                    share|cite|improve this answer











                    $endgroup$












                    • $begingroup$
                      I came up with something similar, but what about the map $f((x,y,z)) = (y,z)$? I think this one should be fine too, right?
                      $endgroup$
                      – Ufomammut
                      21 mins ago











                    • $begingroup$
                      Yes, that will also work.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Mayank Mishra
                      18 mins ago















                    2












                    $begingroup$

                    We can use the first isomorphism theorem for groups here as you indicated. Consider the map $f : mathbbR^3 longrightarrow mathbbR^2$ as follows, $f(x,y,z) = (y,y+z)$. First, we show that this map is a well-defined group homomorphism and next show that $H = (y,0,0) $ is its kernel.
                    If $(x_1,y_1,z_1) = (x_2,y_2,z_2)$ then $f(x_1,y_1,z_1) = f(x_2,y_2,z_2)$ hence map is well defined.
                    Next we show this map is homomorphism. $f((x_1,y_1,z_1) + (x_2,y_2,z_2)) = f(x_1+x_2,y_1+y_2,z_1+z_2) = (y_1+y_2, (y_1+y_2)+(z_1+z_2)) = (y_1+y_2, (y_1+z_1)+(y_2+z_2) = (y_1,y_1+z_1) + (y_2,y_2+z_2) = f(x_1,y_1,z_1) +f(x_2,y_2,z_2). textMoreover, f(0,0,0) = (0,0)$
                    The kernel of this map is seen to be all $(x,y,z) in mathbbR$ such that $y,z$ are $0$ , i.e., $H$.
                    Hence first isomorphism theorem applies and $ mathbbR^3/H equiv mathbbR^2.$






                    share|cite|improve this answer











                    $endgroup$












                    • $begingroup$
                      I came up with something similar, but what about the map $f((x,y,z)) = (y,z)$? I think this one should be fine too, right?
                      $endgroup$
                      – Ufomammut
                      21 mins ago











                    • $begingroup$
                      Yes, that will also work.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Mayank Mishra
                      18 mins ago













                    2












                    2








                    2





                    $begingroup$

                    We can use the first isomorphism theorem for groups here as you indicated. Consider the map $f : mathbbR^3 longrightarrow mathbbR^2$ as follows, $f(x,y,z) = (y,y+z)$. First, we show that this map is a well-defined group homomorphism and next show that $H = (y,0,0) $ is its kernel.
                    If $(x_1,y_1,z_1) = (x_2,y_2,z_2)$ then $f(x_1,y_1,z_1) = f(x_2,y_2,z_2)$ hence map is well defined.
                    Next we show this map is homomorphism. $f((x_1,y_1,z_1) + (x_2,y_2,z_2)) = f(x_1+x_2,y_1+y_2,z_1+z_2) = (y_1+y_2, (y_1+y_2)+(z_1+z_2)) = (y_1+y_2, (y_1+z_1)+(y_2+z_2) = (y_1,y_1+z_1) + (y_2,y_2+z_2) = f(x_1,y_1,z_1) +f(x_2,y_2,z_2). textMoreover, f(0,0,0) = (0,0)$
                    The kernel of this map is seen to be all $(x,y,z) in mathbbR$ such that $y,z$ are $0$ , i.e., $H$.
                    Hence first isomorphism theorem applies and $ mathbbR^3/H equiv mathbbR^2.$






                    share|cite|improve this answer











                    $endgroup$



                    We can use the first isomorphism theorem for groups here as you indicated. Consider the map $f : mathbbR^3 longrightarrow mathbbR^2$ as follows, $f(x,y,z) = (y,y+z)$. First, we show that this map is a well-defined group homomorphism and next show that $H = (y,0,0) $ is its kernel.
                    If $(x_1,y_1,z_1) = (x_2,y_2,z_2)$ then $f(x_1,y_1,z_1) = f(x_2,y_2,z_2)$ hence map is well defined.
                    Next we show this map is homomorphism. $f((x_1,y_1,z_1) + (x_2,y_2,z_2)) = f(x_1+x_2,y_1+y_2,z_1+z_2) = (y_1+y_2, (y_1+y_2)+(z_1+z_2)) = (y_1+y_2, (y_1+z_1)+(y_2+z_2) = (y_1,y_1+z_1) + (y_2,y_2+z_2) = f(x_1,y_1,z_1) +f(x_2,y_2,z_2). textMoreover, f(0,0,0) = (0,0)$
                    The kernel of this map is seen to be all $(x,y,z) in mathbbR$ such that $y,z$ are $0$ , i.e., $H$.
                    Hence first isomorphism theorem applies and $ mathbbR^3/H equiv mathbbR^2.$







                    share|cite|improve this answer














                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer








                    edited 4 mins ago

























                    answered 23 mins ago









                    Mayank MishraMayank Mishra

                    1068




                    1068











                    • $begingroup$
                      I came up with something similar, but what about the map $f((x,y,z)) = (y,z)$? I think this one should be fine too, right?
                      $endgroup$
                      – Ufomammut
                      21 mins ago











                    • $begingroup$
                      Yes, that will also work.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Mayank Mishra
                      18 mins ago
















                    • $begingroup$
                      I came up with something similar, but what about the map $f((x,y,z)) = (y,z)$? I think this one should be fine too, right?
                      $endgroup$
                      – Ufomammut
                      21 mins ago











                    • $begingroup$
                      Yes, that will also work.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Mayank Mishra
                      18 mins ago















                    $begingroup$
                    I came up with something similar, but what about the map $f((x,y,z)) = (y,z)$? I think this one should be fine too, right?
                    $endgroup$
                    – Ufomammut
                    21 mins ago





                    $begingroup$
                    I came up with something similar, but what about the map $f((x,y,z)) = (y,z)$? I think this one should be fine too, right?
                    $endgroup$
                    – Ufomammut
                    21 mins ago













                    $begingroup$
                    Yes, that will also work.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Mayank Mishra
                    18 mins ago




                    $begingroup$
                    Yes, that will also work.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Mayank Mishra
                    18 mins ago

















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